Can you please explain to me why bilateral ecclesiology can be a major divisive issue in Messianic theology?
FAQ
How can you say that the Law of Moses is still to be followed by Christians today, when it is quite clear that all things are now lawful?
I am a non-Jewish Believer in the Messianic movement, and I am a bit disturbed at how I have encountered various Jewish Believers in my midst use the term “Gentile.” I am not at all trying to be ethnically or culturally Jewish in following Torah, even though I respect my fellow Jewish brothers and sisters, but I detect that the term “Gentile” is being used with some negative or pejorative sense. Is it not true that the term “Gentile” can actually mean “pagan”? Can you help me?
How should today’s Messianic people approach the end-times? How many people are motivated by fear and their feelings? How many people are trying to calculate Date X? How many of us need to be refocused onto the mission and purposes of the Kingdom of God?
In examining some Messianic Jewish teaching materials, they explained to me that the Commonwealth of Israel is made up of both the Jewish people and the Church, sort of like the British Commonwealth. They have actually said that as a non-Jewish Believer, I am really not a part of Israel, only the Commonwealth. Does this viewpoint have any legitimacy?
Proponents of the Two-House teaching commonly claim that the “fullness of the Gentiles/nations” in Romans 11:25, is the same as that prophesied by Jacob in Genesis 48:19. Is there any merit to the “fullness of the Gentiles/nations” being those of the Lost Tribes of Ephraim?
Messianic Apologetics editor John McKee reviews why many in today’s Messianic movement, generally frown on the works of Christian Biblical scholarship.
Do you think the reference seen in Scripture to “fire baptism” is to something good or something bad?
Why does the Messiah have to be Divine? How significant is the debate over the Divinity of Yeshua to contemporary Messianic theology?